Could such causation be proven, if it existed? I don't think so. In addition to contemptuous elitism and Trump, there is also agreement that the US is very div

Could such causation be proven, if it existed? I don't think so. In addition to contemptuous elitism and Trump, there is also agreement that the US is very divided. Also, as the posts above suggest, people who oppose people who oppose the EU, do not meet these people with the same proportion they appear to exist according to polls. Which matches my experience that educated people are afraid to express their opposition to the EU. Still does not prove causality, because causality on such an issue cannot be proven. You need to look into second-order effects in order to get a clue what is happening. First second-order clue is that people are afraid to express their opinion. The second one is that opinion is very polarized and people are divided on the issue into "us" and "them", i.e. divided.