3 ms·
You have very clearly established the following: ab = ba --> (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 It is less obvious that you have proven that: (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 --> ab = b
by stephencanon 14y ago
You have very clearly established the following:
ab = ba --> (ab)^2 = a^2b^2
It is less obvious that you have proven that:
(ab)^2 = a^2b^2 --> ab = ba
If I were grading a sophomore algebra class, I would expect to see something along the lines of:
Suppose (ab)^2 = a^2b^2.
Re-associating gives us a(ba)b = a(ab)b;
multiplying on the left and right by the
inverses of a and b gives the result.
In any domain outside of a sophomore algebra class, I happily accept much briefer and more hand-wavy proofs.
- dllthomas 14y agoAh, when I read your response I flipped the order of the problem around in recalling it, so had the if and only-if backwards. Yes, I was handwavy there but it seemed clear enough for the setting (which you seem to be granting anyway) - just wanted to be sure I wasn't misunderstanding something. Thanks :)