4 ms·
That is only the case because you have explicitly transferred those rights to your employer when you first start working for them and sign the paperwork. That
by taligent 14y ago
That is only the case because you have explicitly transferred those rights to your employer when you first start working for them and sign the paperwork.
That is completely legal. This isn't.
- anthonyb 14y agoNot necessarily - it depends on whether it's work for hire. The point being that in some cases you may not have authority to grant that part of the license, and having a blanket "All your codes are belong to Zed" is potentially a good way for Zed to get sued.