Your example is interesting but I don't see how a bank can be held liable if the bankruptcy wasn't communicated to it properly, is there any proof it's a real t

Your example is interesting but I don't see how a bank can be held liable if the bankruptcy wasn't communicated to it properly, is there any proof it's a real thing? The example in the article is different if I read it right: bankruptcy was already known to all parties, account frozen, but the debtor asked court if some operations can be resumed except for chargebacks.