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But 0/1 = 0. So 1/0 must be the inverse/opposite of zero. And I think if you look at the Riemann sphere, the inverse of zero is the point where +infinity and -
by amai 2y ago
But 0/1 = 0. So 1/0 must be the inverse/opposite of zero.
And I think if you look at the Riemann sphere, the inverse of zero is the point where +infinity and -infinity meet. I would call that 0^(-1).
- amai 2y agoActually this is what Mathematica does: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1294852/why-does-wolfram-alpha-say-that-n-0-is-complex-infinity https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1294852/why-does-wo... Mathematica calls this point on the Riemann sphere "complex infinity".
- amai 2y agoSee also https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Projectively_extended_real_line#Dividing_by_zero https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Projectively_extended_real_lin...