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> whats the strong anti-semitic quality in "undefined behaviour" as a modern trigger term? The issue is not "undefined behavior", but the other words in the ti
by Polizeiposaune 2y ago
> whats the strong anti-semitic quality in "undefined behaviour" as a modern trigger term?
The issue is not "undefined behavior", but the other words in the title.
A title of the form "The _____ Question" will for some bring to mind the antisemitic polemics written around "The Jewish Question". That the article is concerned with ways to minimize or eliminate _____ only compounds the matter.
- baggy_trough 2y agoThose people are being ridiculous and should be jeered or ignored.
- amiga386 2y ago> for some And for others will bring to mind "The West Lothian Question", or "The Karelian Question" or even "the $64,000 question" and won't bring to mind any antisemitic polemics whatsoever, and they'll scratch their heads as to how you can turn something as benign as "the X question" into antisemitism. But it's a source of power to spot a means to punish a person for infractions, and to come up with a plausible infraction and get them pushed through that process. I think ultimately it stems from fear of a mob of riled people who could completely sully an organisation's reputation, and some organisations will accept the worst-possible intepretation of any statement and require mea-culpas, reparations, whatever, just in case standing their ground ires a mob.
- ggm 2y agoThe "west lothian" question[0] is going to drive all true scotsmen[1] crazy. It comes up on reddit scottish forums more and more. Ultimately I think it, and the Barnett Formula[2] are going to wind up this issues version of Godwin's law[3] (which isn't a law) -All conversations about Scottish Nationalism and Legitimacy of votes in Westminster become stupidly fractious. [0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Lothian_question https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Lothian_question [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No_true_Scotsman https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No_true_Scotsman [2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barnett_formula https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barnett_formula [3] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Godwin%27s_law https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Godwin%27s_law
- amiga386 2y agoSomething of a side note, but the West Lothian question is mostly academic. By convention, Scottish MPs voluntarily abstain from votes on English-only laws and more importantly they're usually too small a bloc to affect the outcome of a vote. The only times Scottish MPs have gone against their own convention, and their votes changed the outcome, was a 2003 vote on foundation hospitals and a 2004 vote on tuition fees. In 2015, the government introduced English Votes for English Laws (EVEL), offically banning Scottish MP from voting on English-only matters, and repealed it 6 years later. The reason was, effectively, the 2015 government was teetering on the edge (only a coalition stopped it being a hung parliament) and needed every vote it can get, but by 2019 had a "thumping majority" (as is normal in FPTP elections) and could easily outvote Opposition + Scottish MPs on anything. Much more common is that the UK Government does something in Scotland first -- such as introduce the Poll Tax a year before England -- or does something which negatively affects a UK region like Scotland, and MPs from that region _can_ vote on it, but they don't have the numbers to stop it being enacted, so effectively Westminster pushes its will on the region. Devolution has shifted the bulk of lawmaking to Holyrood, but there are still a number of reserved matters that Westminster retains authority over
- cafard 2y agoI'd have thought first of the Schleswig-Holstein question.