Disclaimer: Not a tax professional, but have had a few businesses. Why are you calculating the US/UK/AUS as sale of a business, and the german one as sales of

Disclaimer: Not a tax professional, but have had a few businesses. Why are you calculating the US/UK/AUS as sale of a business, and the german one as sales of an asset owned by the business? One is profit of the business, and therefore subject to additional taxation before before distribution of funds, the other isn't. Thats why your figures are so different. Even in your examples where they would buy the whole company, if they then wanted to roll the assets into their own company in any way, the tax liability would still exist. So all that happens is the burden moves from you to them (no doubt they would do it as efficiently as possible, but there is still a liability). If you are selling the sole asset of your business at what you deem the same value as the whole business, then you clearly aren't accounting for the business liabilities. Account for that, and then you will be equal again.