> Is that an accurate reading of what you're saying? Not at all. > I.e., Mexicans are inherently more corrupt, and Europeans inherently less corrupt. By their

> Is that an accurate reading of what you're saying? Not at all. > I.e., Mexicans are inherently more corrupt, and Europeans inherently less corrupt. By their nature. Not sure what you mean "by their nature" but it sounds like you're saying it's about genetics which is definitely NOT what I'm saying. Culture is a context. It's not biological, it's artificial. Europe has a different cultural context than Mexico. Mexicans in Europe will behave differently than in Mexico (and vice versa) which is what the experiment mentioned in the OP showed. As to why this is... maybe the fact that Mexico has +95% rate of impunity might be a factor (sarcasm). https://www.impunidadcero.org/impunidad-en-mexico/ https://www.impunidadcero.org/impunidad-en-mexico/ (in Spanish)