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> Is it ever possible to give a completely compelling argument that two proofs are genuinely different? I think in some cases, we can. Sometimes one of the pro
by WCSTombs 2y ago
> Is it ever possible to give a completely compelling argument that two proofs are genuinely different?
I think in some cases, we can. Sometimes one of the proofs generalizes better than the other because it uses strictly fewer assumptions. It seems fair to say those would have to be inequivalent.