3 ms·
Classically, yes. Quantum mechanically, acceleration is a rather ill-defined quantity, so I don't know how to answer the question other than through Ehrenfest'
by nilaykumar 14y ago
Classically, yes.
Quantum mechanically, acceleration is a rather ill-defined quantity, so I don't know how to answer the question other than through Ehrenfest's theorem - <F> = m <a> when we're talking <averages> [http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ehrenfest%27s_theorem http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ehrenfest%27s_theorem]
- andrewflnr 14y agoSheesh, somehow I at least that that would hold in QM.