3 ms·
No inversion of control is still coupling. You have modules A and B. If module A is defined in terms of B or B defined in terms of A then you have a coupling.
by ninetyninenine 2y ago
No inversion of control is still coupling. You have modules A and B.
If module A is defined in terms of B or B defined in terms of A then you have a coupling.
The inversion is orthogonal to the problem right? The inversion of A defined in terms of B is rewriting B to be defined in terms of A.
Better to have A and B not know about each other and be independent instead of dependent.