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Didn't the de jure government get involved in WWII with prices caps on wages yet exempting benefits, and this set the stage for the anticompetitive bundling of
by mindslight 2y ago
Didn't the de jure government get involved in WWII with prices caps on wages yet exempting benefits, and this set the stage for the anticompetitive bundling of healthcare with employment? And wasn't the standard of care back then predominantly flavoring plus opium, which has a quite low cost basis?
- WalterBright 2y agoYes, employers during WW2 started offering health care as a fringe benefit because the US had wage caps. Even earlier, the government required licensing of doctors, the original purpose of which was to drive out Jewish and Black doctors. https://www.amazon.com/Competition-Monopoly-Medical-Care-Frech/dp/0844738840 https://www.amazon.com/Competition-Monopoly-Medical-Care-Fre... But the big government push into health care happened in the 60's. Another big driver of American health care costs is the FDA: https://www.amazon.com/Regulation-Pharmaceutical-Innovation-Amendments-Evaluative/dp/0844731285 https://www.amazon.com/Regulation-Pharmaceutical-Innovation-...