>when things can be determined, objectively, to be hateful or vile, why allow them? And what is the objective criteria used to determine hatefulness and vilene

>when things can be determined, objectively, to be hateful or vile, why allow them? And what is the objective criteria used to determine hatefulness and vileness? I am interested in how such a thing can be formulated in a definitively objective way. I think by "objective" you probably mean "almost universally agreed", not actually "objective", because I don't think that any truly objective measurements of hatefulness and vileness are known.