3 ms·
I think you mean pre-1970ish position. No-fault divorce wasn't introduced anywhere in the US until 1969 in California. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No-fault_di
by reverius42 2y ago
I think you mean pre-1970ish position. No-fault divorce wasn't introduced anywhere in the US until 1969 in California. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No-fault_divorce https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No-fault_divorce
- BriggyDwiggs42 2y agoSheesh
- willcipriano 2y agoNo-fault divorce would be more aptly described as providers-fault divorce if you look at how the family courts tend to work.
- BriggyDwiggs42 2y agoSure family courts are biased, but the idea of divorce not being allowed unless one demonstrates fault to a court is absolutely and utterly absurd in a country where we allow people to freely associate, so I hope you’re not gonna try and argue against no-fault divorce itself on the basis of court bias.