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No, not in a direct sense anyway. It should be a tort. The government should assist with enforcement of court ordered actions like seizure of property or liens
by jacobr1 2y ago
No, not in a direct sense anyway. It should be a tort. The government should assist with enforcement of court ordered actions like seizure of property or liens for non-payment however.
- doctorpangloss 2y ago> No, not in a direct sense anyway. It should be a tort. For any particularly good reason, other than, "piracy is a cultural norm?" Kind of tautological.