3 ms·

Aumann proved that this is not reasonable. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aumann's_agreement_theorem https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aumann's_agreement_theore

• sddsdd 2y ago
  No, Aumann's theorem proves a much more limited thing. For one thing, it assumes agents have a common prior, which is a very strong assumption not present in most cases where people "agree to disagree". When the disagreement starts from foundational subjective disagreements, such as what constitutes malpractice or intent or incompetence, etc, the theorem has nothing to say, and it is perfectly reasonable to say that you "agree to disagree".
• ranger_danger 2y ago
  >proved by the same guy who invented it Not everyone is going to be reasonable about everything. Including their own definitions of "agreeing" or "reasonable".