> If you go to an optician to get a prescription for eyeglasses, assuming you pay via your insurance, if the optician believes that you will not be ordering gla

> If you go to an optician to get a prescription for eyeglasses, assuming you pay via your insurance, if the optician believes that you will not be ordering glasses from the optician, the optician intentionally and vindictively gives you an erroneous prescription that is off by 0.5 in one eye You state this like it is standard practice, like all opticians do this. What evidence do you have?