7 ms·

That's explained in Article 102 of the Brazilian Constitution (in Portuguese): https://constituicao.stf.jus.br/dispositivo/cf-88-parte-1-titulo-4-capitulo-3-se

• brigadier132 2y ago
  So just from skimming a translated version, it does not seem like Judges have the power to impose fines, ban unrelated companies that are owned by the same person, or ban things like VPNs. Am I missing something?
  • crop_rotation 2y ago
    You are not missing anything. The Brazilian court has done far more about things which it does not have any basis for. There are many previous HN threads about it as well. Some brazilians had detailed those instances in those threads.
  • hungie 2y ago
    I'm guessing a "skimmed translation" probably doesn't give you a complete understanding of Brazilian law...
    • brigadier132 2y ago
      Yes, thank you, that's why I've been asking people. Do you have an actual answer or do you just have nothing of value to add?