3 ms·

This isn't true as you can build an infinite sequence that never repeats. An example sequence in binary is (the number of 0s between each 1 increases by 1 every

• poizan42 2y ago
  Exactly. A number with the property that every sequence occurs is called a rich or disjunctive number - a number can be rich in s specific bases or rich for all bases we don't know whether pi is any if that. A number where every sequence occurs equally often (scaled to the length of the sequence) is called a normal number, which is an even stronger property.
  • sponaugle 2y ago
    While Pi is not proven to be a disjunctive number, nor the stronger condition of being normal, it is generally believed to be normal. That being said we don't have a proof of Pi being normal, nor disjunctive. I am not familiar with how a proof of that would be constructed, as clearly numerical or computational measurements could never be conclusive.
• jfoutz 2y ago
  Starting from the fourth digit, 01000100 But maybe I don’t understand your example
  • Misdicorl 2y ago
    You didn't understand the original claim which is that because Pi has an infinite decimal representation, every subsequence of it has a repeat
    • jfoutz 2y ago
      Ahh, you’re saying something like every sequence containing at least 2 ones, does not repeat. There may be some long repeats, but not all sequences repeat. Thanks!
• 34679 2y ago
  Your example is governed by an arbitrary rule of your choosing. Pi is not.