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The article says they sold the stocks a year before the ruling. Assuming he didn't re-buy any, what would he gain from making a ruling while he's not holding a
by donmcronald 2y ago
The article says they sold the stocks a year before the ruling. Assuming he didn't re-buy any, what would he gain from making a ruling while he's not holding any of the stock?
- throw_a_grenade 2y agoI could be seen the other way around: theoretically he gould have known that the ruling would make the price drop so selling before ruling (which he did) would be better for his wealth than selling after the ruling. I have no idea if that is meaningful if done a year before actual ruling and in the amount he held.