> In the Netherlands and Switzerland the articles of the law don't always mention if they allow deviation by agreement. In those cases the assumption is: No, un

> In the Netherlands and Switzerland the articles of the law don't always mention if they allow deviation by agreement. In those cases the assumption is: No, unless the legislative process documented that it was intended to be. That's literally what I wrote. Why are you telling me that I'm wrong, when you're restating my point. > Your example concerning drunk-driving is troubling, because that would usually be treated as a misdemeanor or a crime. Not as part of a Civil Code violation. You could claim damages under the Civil Code, but then you are asserting a violation of the 'Public Order' Code, which you then have to prove. What does this even have to do with what I wrote?