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Because that would require building a testing protocol (what specific outcomes are predicted, how it would be measured, and what constitutes success/failure), a
by kstenerud 2y ago
Because that would require building a testing protocol (what specific outcomes are predicted, how it would be measured, and what constitutes success/failure), and it must pass peer review.
Since this has not happened, Stockhom Syndrome is not considered testable (because no such scientific tests have been defined). If one were to successfully design a testing protocol for it, it would then be considered testable. For now, it's not even a theory.
- olalonde 2y agoI'm curious why you feel so confident about that. From what I can tell, it's regarded as real by the FBI, American Psychiatric Association, etc. I also don't see why it wouldn't be testable... do you not see interviewing hostage victims as a legitimate testing protocol? Not to mention the many high profile cases where victims clearly demonstrated symptoms.
- kstenerud 2y agoThe scientific process requires you to make specific, measurable predictions, and then conduct unbiased experiments that test for those measured predictions in a way that can be replicated by other people. This is a well-established process that Stockholm Syndrome has yet to undergo (much like the polygraph - also a favorite of the FBI). The fact that it's "regarded as real" is immaterial - in fact, that's PRECISELY WHY the scientific process exists. It used to be "regarded as real" that homosexuality is a mental disorder - by both the BOI/FBI and the psychiatric community. Everyone just somehow "knew" it to be true... > Not to mention the many high profile cases where victims clearly demonstrated symptoms. Such as? If this is indeed a real thing, then there should be so many recorded instances by now that there's enough data to perform an actual study and publish a paper demonstrating the effcet (gaining the author some serious recognition in the scientific community).