2 ms·
The difference is that Kant's categorical imperative allows for you to wish for all women to be slaves. Rawls' doesn't since you may be a woman and you have no
by guerrilla 2y ago
The difference is that Kant's categorical imperative allows for you to wish for all women to be slaves. Rawls' doesn't since you may be a woman and you have no way of kniwing behind the veil of ignorance.