3 ms·

> The existence of bias in one case doesn't prove it in all cases. It proves a source has an editorial department that is either fine with the piece as written

by ethbr1 2y ago

> The existence of bias in one case doesn't prove it in all cases. It proves a source has an editorial department that is either fine with the piece as written or didn't do due diligence. Rarely is there really just an innocent victim. Reality is messy.

mulmen 2y ago
For that to work you have to prove the bias for each publication. You can't just assume that it exists in all cases.
- ethbr1 2y ago
  Per source, yes.