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I mean, part of the reason why I ask this question is that specificity and sensitivity tend to be inversely related: as a test becomes more sensitive, it tends
by nrr 2y ago
I mean, part of the reason why I ask this question is that specificity and sensitivity tend to be inversely related: as a test becomes more sensitive, it tends to become less specific, say.
(While I'm here, in case folks are lacking the statistics background: specificity and sensitivity refer to the probabilities that a test will return with a negative test result in the absence of a condition or a positive test result in the presence of a condition respectively.)
Most of the "promising" tests I've seen tend to be something like 80% sensitive and 20% specific (testing for Lyme disease comes to mind), which makes them no better than flipping a weighted coin. The fact that this Alzheimer's test beats that feels like a big deal on the probability merits alone, and I can't think of basically any other tests that do that. (Serum cardiac troponins maybe?)
- Rhapso 2y agoThey don't offer any tests for "general population" situations, only "people we think might already have dementia". This is a really strong filter up-front. I suspect the test would be high sensitivity very low specificity in the general population, but that is an intuition not backed by any data.
- nrr 2y agoAha, yeah, restricting your population could certainly have that effect on the specificity. Thanks for clarifying.
- tptacek 2y agoFor what it's worth, I'm not sure specificity/sensitivity is the limiting factor here (for doing broad population surveys with this test); it's the low base rate of Alzheimers relative to the specificity. At 90% true positive and 10% base rate, I think? (I suck at math) a positive test has like a coin flip chance of being right?
- nrr 2y agoWe're in the realm of probability, which is mysterious sometimes even to people who have a math background. I didn't fully grok it until I studied intensely for my first actuarial exams. (: This kind of thing is almost always a weighted coin toss: with sensitivity or specificity alone, you only have two possible outcomes (present/relevant, absent/irrelevant), and the thing that changes is the probability distribution of those outcomes. Combining the two gets you the full four: present and relevant; present and irrelevant; absent and relevant; and absent and irrelevant. Taking the uniform distribution, they're all 25% likely, but the idea is to find a probability distribution that makes the "present and relevant" and "absent and relevant" outcomes more likely. Since I myself don't work in a clinical setting, I simply hadn't considered that the clinician would want to exercise discretion in pre-screening for specificity before ordering the test in order to get there. Oops.
- tptacek 2y agoI'm just saying, 90% true positive rate, 10% base rate, 1000 pts: * 100 true positives * 100 false positives (100-90=10% of 1000) That's still just a 10% false positive rate across the population, but if you get a positive test, it's only 50/50 correct. Did I do this wrong? I'm assuming I did this wrong.
- nrr 2y agoI think you may be close but likely for the wrong reasons. I had to sit down with this for a moment to feel comfortable with it. If we take your 10% base rate to be disease prevalence, that gives us 100 sick and 900 well. Of the 100 sick, something with 90% sensitivity should get me 90 true positive tests and 10 false negative tests. Of the 900 well, I should expect to see for a test with 90% specificity, what, 80 false positives and 810 true negatives? if I did my arithmetic right?