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> just as the GDP per capita of any individual European country pre WW1/2 is higher as well. Is that true? https://substackcdn.com/image/fetch/f_auto,q_auto:go
by TulliusCicero 2y ago
> just as the GDP per capita of any individual European country pre WW1/2 is higher as well.
Is that true? https://substackcdn.com/image/fetch/f_auto,q_auto:good,fl_progressive:steep/https%3A%2F%2Fbucketeer-e05bbc84-baa3-437e-9518-adb32be77984.s3.amazonaws.com%2Fpublic%2Fimages%2F400a9475-6f33-4239-96f2-7ec6d49dfa1f_2048x1338.png https://substackcdn.com/image/fetch/f_auto,q_auto:good,fl_pr...
- Galanwe 2y agoOh indeed, I looked at the GDP numbers and divided by the current population ratio, looks like it changed more than I thought across time.