> so above quote can by no means be taken as an argument that cilantro "became unfashionable" so authors started describing it negatively. It can be if the per

> so above quote can by no means be taken as an argument that cilantro "became unfashionable" so authors started describing it negatively. It can be if the person who was genetically predetermined to dislike the taste was influential. I agree that this interpretation would require additional evidence to presume, but the above quote certainly does not preclude such a possibility. Most importantly, much of culture is determined by taste outside of genetic disposition. I don't see much reason to see this scenario as removed from the influence of culture.