4 ms·
> but you can't do that when n is a fraction Sure you can. You know what 2^n is and you want that 2^(1/3) 2^(1/3) 2^(1/3)= 2^1=1. That uniquely defines the exp
by diffeomorphism 2y ago
> but you can't do that when n is a fraction
Sure you can. You know what 2^n is and you want that 2^(1/3) 2^(1/3) 2^(1/3)= 2^1=1. That uniquely defines the exponential function on the rationals. For the real numbers you need some amount of continuity or measurability, but then it is also uniquely determined.
> but I think the usual way is to first define exp and log, and then say that a^b=exp(b*log(a)), which is kind of cheating because we have to define exp first!).
No, you don't just "say" that. You prove it. Big difference.
- Tainnor 2y ago> No, you don't just "say" that. You prove it. Big difference. Whether a^b=exp(b*log(a)) is a definition or a proof really depends on how exactly you define certain terms (e.g. exp). What's certainly a theorem that requires a proof is that the definition of a^b (for irrational b) via limits of rational exponents and the one via exp are equivalent.