From the conclusion section: MV use was not associated with lower all-cause mortality risk in the first (multivariable-adjusted HR, 1.04; 95% CI, 1

From the conclusion section: MV use was not associated with lower all-cause mortality risk in the first (multivariable-adjusted HR, 1.04; 95% CI, 1.02-1.07) or second (multivariable- adjusted HR, 1.04; 95% CI, 0.99-1.08) halves of follow-up. Do I read this correctly, that the hazard rate in the multivitamin group was 4% higher than in the non-multivitamin group? And do I read the CI of 1.02-1.07 correctly in that this difference is statistically significant?