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> I think it uses Cohen's forcing You don't have to give a full proof, just an intuitive explanation of why the "obvious" arguments fail. For example, we can
by lisper 2y ago
> I think it uses Cohen's forcing
You don't have to give a full proof, just an intuitive explanation of why the "obvious" arguments fail. For example, we can prove the non-emptiness of product sets for finite sets. Why can that not simply be extended in the "obvious" way to infinite sets? How can making the sets "bigger" suddenly make the product empty?
- ColinWright 2y agoHmm. I'll have to think more about that. The problem I have is that "intuitive arguments" differ between people. What one person thinks is intuitively obviously true, another can think is intuitively obviously false. I'll have to think about what I would be trying to say. It's a good point ... it's now explicitly on my list. Thank you.