3 ms·
>Can someone explain this more simply? It comes down to the fact that not every set can be reasonably assigned a volume. Once you restrict yourself to sets whe
by constantcrying 2y ago
>Can someone explain this more simply?
It comes down to the fact that not every set can be reasonably assigned a volume. Once you restrict yourself to sets where volume is meaningfully defined, the paradox immediately disappears and your reasoning becomes completely valid.