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From the UN march report: "Citing international law, Ms. Albanese explained that genocide is defined as a specific set of acts committed with the intent to des
by dmbche 2y ago
From the UN march report:
"Citing international law, Ms. Albanese explained that genocide is defined as a specific set of acts committed with the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial or religious group.
“Specifically, Israel has committed three acts of genocide with the requisite intent: causing seriously serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group, deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part, and imposing measures intended to prevent birth within the group,” she said.
Furthermore, “the genocide in Gaza is the most extreme stage of a long-standing settler colonial process of erasure of the native Palestinians,” she continued. "
Edit0: Feel free to google "Nakba" and search for yourself as well
- cscurmudgeon 2y agoAlbanese is not the final judge of this though. This has to be argued in an impartial court with facts demonstrating and documenting intent. Albanese’s mere words won’t count as facts. If there is intent why does the IDF warn before strikes?
- dmbche 2y agoSure - did Israel stop all actions and sent Nethanyahu and Yoav to the ICJ for judgment? Do you think it's possible to act in a way to veil your intent as much as possible? Further questions to ask yourself : Did Israel let power back in Gaza? Can the Gazans get the warning? Do they warn everytime? What's the delay? Where does "soldiers dressing up as aid workers and doctors against international law" fit in your idea of "warning before a strike"? And most important of all - is there a line they could conceivably cross for you to call it genocide?