> A simpler explanation is that Borges had some experience (don't we all?) with partisans, reviewers, and even scholars, who seem wilfully to imagine their chos

> A simpler explanation is that Borges had some experience (don't we all?) with partisans, reviewers, and even scholars, who seem wilfully to imagine their chosen text as written at a different time and by a different author than it had been. I don't think this does the Menard story justice (although I'm not sure I buy the interpretation you're critiquing either) You're on the right lines but you paint it as some kind of irritated put down of bad interpretations. I think Borges trying to probe (in a witty and playful way) the thing that we all do when when we attempt to read something from another time or place. He's not particularly passing judgement as I don't think he is claiming there's an easy way round the problems. EDIT - I've just done the thing I hate other people doing - replying to a comment without reading TFA properly. I'll remedy this but I want my reply to stand because I disagree with your characterisation and it's currently the top comment.