It depends the time or place you are comparing (e.g., seventeenth century Britain was a more unequal place than modern day Britain). And in the Middle Ages, ev

It depends the time or place you are comparing (e.g., seventeenth century Britain was a more unequal place than modern day Britain). And in the Middle Ages, even if you just look at Western Europe, wealth distribution could be extremely variable between places and times. A peasant in eighth century Lombardy would have been subjected to totally different customs and laws than one in twelfth century Brittany, same with other segments of society. There was nothing like a universal "feudal law" anywhere. Even the concept of the "church" being a single monolithic thing that received X% of wealth makes no sense (e.g., bishops could simultaneously be lay lords with vast holdings, a monastery could be rich or poor, etc.).