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Yes anytime before today. In feudal society you had King/Nobel who owned all and serfs who worked their land.

• zrn900 2y ago
  That's patently false. Feudal law required that the serfs get 33% of the produce from the fields. The economy was mostly tied to farm produce and the serfs could not be kicked out from their houses.
  • bolobo 2y ago
    Where did you get that from? You are talking about millions of people scattered over hundreds of political entities over hundreds of years. There might have been some commonalities, but certainly not anything like this rule.
    • zrn900 2y ago
      The feudal laws of mostly Western Europe. Eastern serfdom has been much worse and much closer to slavery, however the serfs still had their house and share from the crops. The eastern European feudal lords, dukes, kings or emperors never had access to this much share of the wealth like ordinary billionaires today do.
  • Slyfox33 2y ago
    Ah yes "Feudal law". Which Feudal law?
    • zrn900 2y ago
      English. As mandated by the church. The rest of the feudal domains, while varied and some were much more brutal, also had the same setup in which the serfs were entitled to their share of the crop. So the point was and still is valid: Never in history a minority controlled this much of the world's wealth like the billionaires do today, including kings and emperors.