4 ms·

I imagine the person you’re replying to is a Marxist

• gumby 2y ago
  Your sentence is a refreshing (for these days) example use of their term in a normative, rather than political and/or pejorative sense. Marxism is really a consequence of the Victorian era, despite Marx and Engles being German. It is the fruit of not just the economic system of the mid-late 19th century but its social values as well. It makes no sense for the prior period of early industrialization. Also Britain’s political emphasis of commercial activity predates significant industrialization — just look at the enclosure laws and Corn Laws, and compare them to the contemporary extractive view towards commerce in France.
  • bowsamic 2y ago
    The reason I said it is because they seemed to be implicitly dismissing anything that isn't a historical material factor (i.e. dismissing an ideological explanation that doesn't address the historical material conditions)