> There was no legal change, the law was applied as written as it has been to many other individuals. Can you cite a single case before Trump's where this law

> There was no legal change, the law was applied as written as it has been to many other individuals. Can you cite a single case before Trump's where this law was applied, as a felony, without actually charging the defendant with the other crime that makes it a felony? I looked. In the cases I checked, the second crime was charged. And an honest observer has to wonder why that second crime wasn't charged in this case. Did the prosecution doubt they could prove it?