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No, because if you do it that way, you wouldn't have Thales's Theorem. It would be Thales's Trivial Corollary. Thales's Theroem is a simpler, easier to prove (
by lupire 2y ago
No, because if you do it that way, you wouldn't have Thales's Theorem. It would be Thales's Trivial Corollary.
Thales's Theroem is a simpler, easier to prove (as in OP), less powerful statement than the inscribed angle theorem.
- rodneyzeng 2y agoYour second sentence denies the first sentence. The proof of the Inscribed angle theorem does not need Thale's Theorem, and it is stronger than Thale's Theorem.