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> I think this is well reasoned. My understanding of the article is: feminism happened, which caused women to become more unpleasant. It's not clear though why
by avmich 2y ago
> I think this is well reasoned.
My understanding of the article is: feminism happened, which caused women to become more unpleasant. It's not clear though why shifting social norms - and which specific norms, relevant to this topic? - lead to that becoming. Was author implying that somehow society before served as the unpleasant filter removing bad behavior from men, and feminism relaxed that society's norm, so now women have to deal with it themselves?
- giraffe_lady 2y agoYes, that's essentially the position: > What happens when everything is allowed, as long as it is consensual? Then the burden to say “I consent” or “I do not consent” lies squarely with the individual. Individual women need to radiate “I do not consent”. The restrictions on women's freedom and especially stigma/taboo around their real or perceived sexual interactions limited the "attack surface" for harassment as well. Now that women may accept or initiate sexual encounters (theoretically) free of stigma, they also must repel all unwanted advances, when previously some of these would have been prevented through social norms. I think this is maybe a little optimistic about to what extent these norms actually prevented unwanted negative interactions, and between whom. But it seems like an overall accurate observation to me.
- avmich 2y ago> Now that women may Thanks. I guess I thought this change happened much earlier than in ~2000+ - more like 1960+ - so was wondering what was that specific which happened relatively recently.