3 ms·
From a boolean logic point of view - AND is irreversible, since (1 .AND. 0) is 0, as is (0 .AND. 0.) Going from the result (0), you can't reverse and get the s
by sponaugle 2y ago
From a boolean logic point of view - AND is irreversible, since (1 .AND. 0) is 0, as is (0 .AND. 0.) Going from the result (0), you can't reverse and get the starting inputs.
NOT however is reversible, since 1 .NOT. -> 0, and you can get back to 1 with another .NOT.
- nico 2y agoThank you for the examples It seems like AND is similar to calculating a binary derivative (https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40328821 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40328821) In a certain way you could say you can integrate AND For example 1 AND 0 = 0 Now if I only have 0 as a result, it means one of the arguments was 0, and the other is either 0 or 1 So the “integral” of AND(0,x) = 0, is (0, (either 0 or 1)) or just x = (either 0 or 1) [0 or 1 meaning one means either. It doesn’t mean 0 OR 1, which would be 1] This is analog to the result of an integral being expressed as a function + C (constant). The C part is the uncertainty of the result, just like having (0 or 1) for AND The (0 or 1) part can also be expressed as a probability distribution, for example p(0)=0.5,p(1)=0.5 which then you can use to “sample” the integral of AND by randomly taking a (0 or 1) and using it as argument to AND(0, x)