3 ms·
Why? I'm sure that op read stuff before, and this is not the first time this topic was explored and maybe they came to a conclusion based on other data? Just
by chomskyole 2y ago
Why?
I'm sure that op read stuff before, and this is not the first time this topic was explored and maybe they came to a conclusion based on other data?
Just wanted to highlight that this comment displays so much bad faith, dressed in false objectivity.
Are you sure you are not saying this because of being subject to intense propaganda? Not saying that your response tells me that, but maybe something worth considering?
- tqi 2y agoBecause conceding the one data point that you present but doubling down on the conclusion screams confirmation bias. There have been numerous articles debunking this narrative. If you google "how many homes in america are owned by corporations" you get a slew of them[1][2]. There is no data to support this claim because it is not true. According to Freddie Mac[3] Institutional Buyers peaked something like 2.5% market share last year. And that is just of houses sold. In order to fall for a claim as outlandish as "2 out of 5 houses are owned by private equity" you'd either need to be incredibly bad at numbers or looking for confirmation of an existing belief. [1] https://www.strongtowns.org/journal/2024/2/21-going-after-corporate-homebuyers-good-politics-ineffective-policy https://www.strongtowns.org/journal/2024/2/21-going-after-co... [2] https://www.theatlantic.com/ideas/archive/2023/01/housing-crisis-hedge-funds-private-equity-scapegoat/672839/ https://www.theatlantic.com/ideas/archive/2023/01/housing-cr... [3] https://www.housingwire.com/articles/no-wall-street-investors-havent-bought-44-of-homes-this-year/ https://www.housingwire.com/articles/no-wall-street-investor...