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I don't think the alternative definitions are any more supportive or contradict what I've said. This is still a fabricated story. Israel does not "segregate"
by nsguy 2y ago
I don't think the alternative definitions are any more supportive or contradict what I've said.
This is still a fabricated story.
Israel does not "segregate" inside territories it controls. Israel is taking security measures in territories it has occupied to protect its citizens and military. When the US occupied Afghanistan or Iraq or Germany or Japan did those Afghans, or Irqais, or Germans, or Japanese require a permit to travel to the US or could they travel freely to the US? When Afghanistan and Iraq were under US occupation could Afghans and Irqais travel freely between those countries without permits or Visas?
The west bank was occupied from Jordan in 1967. Gaza was occupied from Egypt. Gazans could not travel freely to the west bank before 1967 and so Israel has no obligation to facilitate such travel without requiring permits.
The different legal system is a consequence of military occupation. e.g. "jurisdiction could pass, for example, to military courts of the occupying power if the local courts are not able to function properly."
- https://www.icrc.org/en/doc/assets/files/other/law9_final.pdf https://www.icrc.org/en/doc/assets/files/other/law9_final.pd...
As far as I know Jordanian and Egyptian courts are not functioning in the west bank or in Gaza respectively.
Anyways, it's not "Apartheid". We may not like it. We may not like the length of time that has elapsed (since 1967). We can challenge the legality of specific actions by the different sides. But Apartheid it is not with all due respect to South Africa's political manoeuvring and other political bodies and story tellers.
- runarberg 2y agoThe USA famously took similar security measures when president Roosevelt signed executive order 9066 which exiled all Japanese Americans within a certain “exclusion zone”. Executive Order 9066 is now considered one of US’s heinous human rights violations. After WW2 the victims of executive order 9066 were given the right of return, in 1948 Harry Truman signed an act giving the victims reparations, and in 1988 Ronald Reagan signed a formal apology. This was an act of segregation. Roosevelt claiming it was a security measure did not make this excusable, or otherwise justifiable. Civilians have rights, even when territory is occupied. In fact, it is the responsibility of the occupying power to give the occupied civilians protections, and preserve their human rights. Israel may be claiming these are security measures, and Israel may be correct in their claims, however, what they are doing is still crimes against humanity. If they want to secure their own citizens, they must do so without stripping human rights away from their occupied civilians. But anyway, there is a whole Wikipedia article which explains this much better than me: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israel_and_apartheid https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israel_and_apartheid