The Theft Act 1968 defines theft as dishonest appropriation of “property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it” (and

The Theft Act 1968 defines theft as dishonest appropriation of “property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it” (and then waxes lyrical about what, exactly, that means: https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1968/60/crossheading/definition-of-theft https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1968/60/crossheading/de...). Just going by that law, I would say "it depends".