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> My argument is that there is no 1:1 mapping: for instance, "for (i=0, j=10; s[i]; t[j--] = s[i++])" has no direct correspondence with sigma notation. And?
by lelanthran 3y ago
> My argument is that there is no 1:1 mapping: for instance, "for (i=0, j=10; s[i]; t[j--] = s[i++])" has no direct correspondence with sigma notation.
And? I didn't claim that all the multi-expression, body-in-the-conditional possibilities are a 1:1 mapping with sigma notation, did I?
Why do you think this is more representative of for loops in C than simpler examples I gave?
> or you meant by "1:1 mapping" something quite different from what I mean.
Well, yes. I meant that the 1:1 mapping is from sigma notation to C, not the other way around, because sigma notation was not invented after the C language.
Maybe I shouldn't have said 1:1 mapping; it's much clearer to say "The `for` loop in C is just a way to write sigma notation in programming languages".