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This is Taleb's point I think. In the standard gambler's fallacy situation, it's assumed known that the coin is fair. However, in real life there's always som
by derbOac 3y ago
This is Taleb's point I think.
In the standard gambler's fallacy situation, it's assumed known that the coin is fair.
However, in real life there's always some probability that the assumption is incorrect.
One way to think about it is in terms of likelihoods, priors, and posteriors over models, in addition to the probability of an outcome conditional on a model.
So, the classical assumption is something like P(X | Mf) = 0.5 for a "fair" model Mf, and you're asking someone "what's the probability of heads?". However, there's also the possibility that the coin is actually biased, under Mb. So the actual probability of an observed sequence is something like
P(X|Mf)P(Mf) + P(X|Mb)P(Mb).
Usually we assume that P(Mf) >> P(Mb) but there must be some point at which P(Mb) becomes great enough that it would be rational to start to question that.
Implicitly there's some Bayesian estimate of P(Mb|X) that could be estimated, and some decision point where you decide P(Mb|X) > P(Mf|X).
- phenol 3y agothis is an absolutely valid Bayesian approach to this problem. sadly, this point is not even touched upon in this article, which deals solely with minutiae of the probability distributions (kurtosis, etc) of coins that are indeed fair.
- jrm4 3y agoYup, pretty sure he'd roll with "The 'koin' is fixed. Bet Tails."