> Your graphs do not address affordability. If the homeownership rate is 66%, that means people are able to buy a home. That's how I define affordability. > T

> Your graphs do not address affordability. If the homeownership rate is 66%, that means people are able to buy a home. That's how I define affordability. > This data is highly variable depending on location. California as a whole may be fine -- how about it's most populous counties or cities? How much does the rural divide skew the numbers, if any? California's rural population is <20% of the state[1], so that's not a big enough number to skew the results big way. E.g. an urban county like San Mateo has homeownership rate >60%[2] [1] https://dof.ca.gov/wp-content/uploads/sites/352/Forecasting/Demographics/Documents/Urban-Rural_Classification_and_2020_Urban_Area_Criteria_CA_SDC.pdf https://dof.ca.gov/wp-content/uploads/sites/352/Forecasting/... [2] https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/HOWNRATEACS006081 https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/HOWNRATEACS006081