Thanks, that would be a good theory that could be tested by comparing the number of houses sold with the number of loans reported, presuming constant levels of

Thanks, that would be a good theory that could be tested by comparing the number of houses sold with the number of loans reported, presuming constant levels of legal compliance. Do we see that? Perhaps we do, but the article seemed to focus on a real estate agent's anecdotes and impressions. Also, would I be right to presume that this applies only to standard real estate loans? Are margin loans against stock required to be reported? Or private loans from parent to a child? I'd thought the reporting requirement had more to do with cases where the loan acts as a lien against the house. Edit: Here's a Bogleheads thread that summarizes my understanding: https://www.bogleheads.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=352355 https://www.bogleheads.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=352355. It looks like in California markets (where the article is about) there are various companies that specialize in short term loans to enable "all cash offers".