3 ms·
My impression is that the US defines murder more broadly than the rest of the English-speaking world; the scenario you mention is murder in some US jurisdiction
by skissane 3y ago
My impression is that the US defines murder more broadly than the rest of the English-speaking world; the scenario you mention is murder in some US jurisdictions, but I don’t think that would be true in most other English-speaking countries
I guess this is probably connected with the US retaining the felony-misdemeanour distinction when most other countries that inherited their laws from England (including England herself) have abolished it: you literally can’t have a felony murder rule if you get rid of felonies, you can have some somewhat analogous rules, but they usually end up being narrower in practice
Also, for a long time (until the 1950s), murder had a mandatory death penalty in England (and much of the British Empire), which produced pressure to define the crime narrowly (if jurors thought the person was guilty but didn’t deserve death, they’d acquit). Since the abolition of the death penalty, that pressure no longer exists, but there has been little pressure to broaden it either