> But it is proven by Bell's inequality that such a theory cannot exist, so the spin of particle 1 is indeed a random outcome. It's still allowed so long as a)

> But it is proven by Bell's inequality that such a theory cannot exist, so the spin of particle 1 is indeed a random outcome. It's still allowed so long as a) the theory is nonlocal b) the outcome was not actually independent of the observer or c) superdeterminism.