Bangladesh (formerly East Pakistan) was/is a rice producing region, while Pakistan (formerly West Pakistan) was/is a largely wheat producing region. Is one or

Bangladesh (formerly East Pakistan) was/is a rice producing region, while Pakistan (formerly West Pakistan) was/is a largely wheat producing region. Is one or the other more individualistic? If the claimed hypothesis of these papers is true, did it have any impact on the development of the two regions? Bangladesh is certainly richer today.